Though the Book of Enoch is supposedly written by Enoch, the great-grandfather of Noah, the literature itself is pseudepigraphical. It is not included within any modern day central religious texts other than the Ethiopian Orthodox Church, yet it is quoted in books of the Bible's New Testament. It is also estimated to have existed at least 100-200 years before that of the Dead Sea Scrolls, but was only translated to the English language 2 centuries ago. Though we are already familiar with Enoch from references included within "The Five Books of Moses," why is it that the Book of Enoch was not enclosed within the canonical Bible?
Apparently, Enoch writes that he was accompanying an angel into the heavens, yet he failed to understand exactly if what he heard and saw was intended for him. He mentions that his visions were not meant to be understood by his generation, but by those to come. We must understand that Enoch existed prior to the birth of Jesus, whom eventually would be worshipped as he died for the sins of the unclean. Though he was a prophet, he failed to comprehend a world void of wicked and godless souls. Is it possible that the discovery of this book was intended for our generation, or intended for none? After all, the book entails descriptions of portals to an alternative existence and dwellings among the wise and unrighteous. Secrets of astronomy and references to locations of fallen angels are cited; even Judgment Day is quoted and revealed to Enoch. If a prophet is bound to experience such enlightenment, why share it with a world encompassed with evil and malevolent beings. Is a human mind capable of understanding such visions and apocrypha? Or was it simply utilized by writers of the New Testament as inspiration to further detail our religious texts? The question is one of many; which is likely the motivation that compels the Church to exempt it from the Bible. I do not see it to be any less comprehensible than those included. What are your ideas?
Published by Greg Seltz
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